From what I hear in the news the Court’s ruling says that the federal drug laws, that were used in the effort to stop the suicide law, were not meant to regulate medical practices.
But, if the Court has accepted that the federal government can regulate medicines (by virtue of having accepted the role of the the FDA) as part of its power to regulate interstate commerce, how can the Court say that the federal government has no power to regulate medical practices that involve drugs, which the federal government can regulate?
Of course this ruling may have its upside. Each Oregonian that commits suicide may mean one less liberal voting. But, then again these dead Oregonians may just move to Chicago.