Why is it permissible for the majority of blacks to vote "overwhelmingly" (heard it on the news tonight) for Obama because he is black and it's not considered racism , but if whites vote "overwhelmingly" for McCain because he is white and NOT for Obama, it is racism?

Why not apply the principle to both candidates?

Precisely, but, then there will toll a price, someone would have to tamper with the last 40 years of saying, thinking, excusing, and accusing, lowering of the bar equality, in quilt driven mandates for what became nothing more than a lowered expectations inequality.

No question, the first 15 to 25 years may have been needed as a learning curve for eqaulity and opportunity denied. But the last 15 or so years have been nothing but a free ride for mongers of lower expectations to use excuses, and accusatory blame, as a continuous tradition more than a need for mandated equality of rising expectations.

Inequality by devious means will not stand the muster of public opinion nor current law in America any more, we have moved past that in vastly large majority. but ineqaulity by competitively lowerrng the bar of standards, will not stand anymore either, the time of lower expectation excuses and blame, are over.

This is a time of change for sure, especially if Obama wins, as it seems nearly impossible he will not. But conceivably it will be an era of change towards unintended consequences, for some, where reality equality, is not law mandated, or forced, and or threatened, as saying this is here is equality, but a social attitude and cultural processes, among all races, acting, as if there were absolutely equality, with no excuses, and no exceptions for all. Something, which has not been present, in this country of Nanny State Victimization marketing, and racial exploitation, of all races, by elitist with distorted realities of self aggrandizement, for a long time.

THAT IS ALL!!